Timeline for When is a map given by a word surjective?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
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Oct 17, 2009 at 19:11 | comment | added | Philipp Lampe | Right. It follows quite simple from the above examples. | |
Oct 17, 2009 at 19:00 | comment | added | H A Helfgott | Philipp, this is very good - however, doesn't this follow directly from the examples we already know? Since f:y-> y x^{-1} y^{-1} isn't surjective, g:y -> x y x^{-1} y^{-1} isn't surjective either: im(g) = x im(f). So, it's essentially the same example. I'll change the phrasing of the question. Thanks. | |
Oct 17, 2009 at 8:25 | history | answered | Philipp Lampe | CC BY-SA 2.5 |