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May 20, 2023 at 15:57 comment added Vik78 Another way to see this: $\mathbb{Q}$ is a prime field, so any isomorphism must be a map of extensions of $\mathbb{Q}$, and therefore maps the rings of integers of the respective fields onto each other. But $p$ is a unit in the ring of integers of $\mathbb{Q}_l$, whereas it is not a unit in the ring of integers of $\mathbb{Q}_p$.
May 20, 2023 at 15:44 history edited Guntram CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 4, 2012 at 13:49 comment added Chandan Singh Dalawat And any integer which is $\equiv1\mod8$ and $\equiv-1\mod3$ is a square in $\mathbf{Q}_2$ but not in $\mathbf{Q}_3$.
Dec 23, 2011 at 18:25 comment added sibilant Isn't ${\mathbb Q}_{2}$ isomorphic to ${\mathbb Q}_{-2}$?
Dec 23, 2011 at 15:56 vote accept gottigen
Dec 23, 2011 at 15:00 history closed user9198
Felipe Voloch
Chandan Singh Dalawat
GH from MO
Igor Rivin
too localized
Dec 23, 2011 at 9:06 comment added Alex B. This has also been asked on MSE, where it really belongs. I have voted to close.
Dec 23, 2011 at 8:53 answer added Guntram timeline score: 13
Dec 23, 2011 at 8:48 comment added KConrad ... except for ${\mathbf Q}_2$ and ${\mathbf Q}_3$, which have the same number of roots of unity. But $-2$ is a square in ${\mathbf Q}_3$ but not in ${\mathbf Q}_2$.
Dec 23, 2011 at 8:43 comment added Chandan Singh Dalawat One can more simply compare the groups of roots of unity contained in the two fields.
Dec 23, 2011 at 7:48 comment added Homology Never: a Galois group $G=\mathrm{Gal} (F/\mathbb{Q}_b)$ is solvable, and in fact $[[G,G],[G,G]]$ is a $p$-group (contained in the wild inertia), and for any $p$ one can choose $F$ so that it is a non-trivial $p$-group.
Dec 23, 2011 at 7:43 comment added Martin Bright No. For example, $\mathbb{Q}_3$ is not isomorphic to $\mathbb{Q}_5$, for the following reason: any field isomorphism would have to map $-1$ to $-1$; but $\mathbb{Q}_5$ contains a square root of $-1$, whereas $\mathbb{Q}_3$ does not.
Dec 23, 2011 at 7:23 history asked gottigen CC BY-SA 3.0