Timeline for Does every ODE comes from something in physics?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 28, 2022 at 5:46 | history | edited | Martin Sleziak | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
http -> https (the question was bumped anyway)
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| Dec 10, 2009 at 2:55 | comment | added | Jorge Vitório Pereira | I am not sure it would be enough. Indeed I suspect that the generic differential equation (in any reasonable sense) is an universal differential equation. There are results which ensures that any germ of holomorphic map f:(0)(0) can be approximated by a holonomy map of a rational differential equations of the form dydx=P(xy)Q(xy) . See "The generic rational differential equation dw/dz=P(z,w)/Q(z,w) on $\mathbb{C}\mathbb{P}^2$ carries no interesting transverse structure" by Belliart, Liousse, and Loray. Erg. Theory and Dyn. Syst., 21 (2001), p.1599-1607. | |
| Dec 10, 2009 at 2:27 | comment | added | Dan Piponi | If you're going to do that then we could just use zeta function universality, and the fact that it is known how to build an analogue computer to compute the zeta function, to claim we can solve any differential equation. :-) | |
| Dec 10, 2009 at 2:18 | history | answered | David E Speyer | CC BY-SA 2.5 |