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Dec 19, 2011 at 13:10 comment added Asaf Karagila I see your point now! Thank you very much, I guess these sets are more peculiar than I expected them to be... :-)
Dec 19, 2011 at 0:39 comment added Andreas Blass @Asaf: Justin wrote that $A$ can't be partitioned into finite sets, and that proof looks OK to me. But I don't see how that leads to your claim that $A$ can't be partitioned into infinitely many infinite sets. Specifically, if I try to carry out a proof like Justin's in the case where the pieces are allowed to be infinite, there's no condition like Justin's $q$ that decides which $a_i$'s (with a ground-model set of indices $i$) constitute a particular piece of the partition.
Dec 18, 2011 at 23:05 comment added Asaf Karagila See Justin's answer in this link: mathoverflow.net/questions/12973/… In Cohen's basic model the D-finite set of reals is "strong" in the amorphous sense of the word (no partition into infinitely many non-singletons exists).
Dec 18, 2011 at 4:27 vote accept Somabha Mukherjee
Dec 17, 2011 at 22:38 comment added Asaf Karagila @Andreas: While it does sound as a very convincing argument, I have run into several proofs that this set is a counterexample to the assertion that every set has a group operation, by the fact that every partition has only finitely many non-singletons. At this moment I am too tired to verify all the details of either arguments, and it will have to wait for tomorrow.
Dec 17, 2011 at 22:25 comment added Andreas Blass @Asaf: If you view the elements of $A$ as subsets of $\omega$, won't there be infinitely many whose first element is $n$, for each $n\in\omega$?
Dec 17, 2011 at 19:41 comment added Asaf Karagila This set $A$ cannot even be split into infinitely many infinite sets, regardless to uncountability of either the partition or the parts.
Dec 17, 2011 at 17:52 history answered Andreas Blass CC BY-SA 3.0