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Dec 16, 2011 at 14:20 vote accept Jan Weidner
Dec 16, 2011 at 14:18 comment added Jan Weidner Thanks Donu, Moosbrugger and anon these comments are useful to me!
Dec 16, 2011 at 5:07 answer added S. Carnahan timeline score: 11
Dec 16, 2011 at 4:54 comment added anon With the naive definition, $H^{1}(X,\mathbb{Z}_\ell)=\operatorname{Hom}_{\text{continuous}}(\pi_1(X),\mathbb{Z}_\ell)$ with the discrete topology on $\mathbb{Z}_\ell$. This is generally zero, because (for nice schemes) $\pi_1(X)$ is profinite. With the nonnaive definition, it is Hom with the natural $\ell$-adic topology on $\mathbb{Z}_\ell$, which is what you want.
Dec 16, 2011 at 0:29 comment added Moosbrugger @Donu: Indeed, but then the question really is: why $\ell$-adic sheaves at all, instead of some other coefficients? (And this is more or less the question Ryan has answered). @Jan: A good way to get a feel for this definition is to work out what it means for the spectrum of a field, to see that it's the same (modulo equivalence) as continuous representations of the Galois group of the field into a finite extension of $\mathbb{Q}_{\ell}$.
Dec 15, 2011 at 23:26 comment added Donu Arapura One possible naive definition might include the constant sheaves $\mathbb{Z}_\ell$ etc. But I believe that $H^1(\mathbb{G}_m,\mathbb{Z}_\ell)=0$ with this choice, which would be the wrong answer: it should be $\mathbb{Z}_\ell$ like the circle.
Dec 15, 2011 at 23:00 answer added Ryan Reich timeline score: 21
Dec 15, 2011 at 22:13 comment added Moosbrugger What is a more naive definition?
Dec 15, 2011 at 22:06 history asked Jan Weidner CC BY-SA 3.0