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Nov 23, 2011 at 21:30 vote accept Sergei Akbarov
Nov 23, 2011 at 14:40 answer added Boris Novikov timeline score: 4
Nov 23, 2011 at 8:46 comment added Martin Brandenburg Thanks for the background. I strongly believe that there are counterexamples, but I haven't found one. After all, it may happen that every epi is an iso? What about considering categories given by generators and relations, perhaps even finite ones?
Nov 22, 2011 at 22:37 comment added Sergei Akbarov Of course, this must be the same in some categories. For example, in Abelian categories, or, more generally, in categories where every morphism $f$ can be represented as a composition $f=m\circ g\circ e$, with $m$ a strong monomorphism, $e$ a strong epimorphism, and $g$ a bimorphism (see details in arxiv.org/abs/1110.2013, Theorem 1.3; unfortunately, in Russian). But I do not know counterexamples at all. Perhaps, these definitions are equivalent in any category?
Nov 22, 2011 at 21:33 comment added Martin Brandenburg Which categories have you tried so far?
Nov 22, 2011 at 20:13 history edited Sergei Akbarov CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 22, 2011 at 19:47 history asked Sergei Akbarov CC BY-SA 3.0