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Nov 19, 2011 at 5:36 answer added David Milovich timeline score: 1
Nov 18, 2011 at 8:53 comment added Anton Fonarev Sorry, I was wrong in my first comment. Indeed, one should divide every equation by the biggest coefficient.
Nov 18, 2011 at 1:55 comment added Will Sawin The shadow of that point seems entirely well-behaved: it's a point, $[0,1]$ since $[\omega,\omega^2]=[1/\omega,1]$ with shadow $[0,1]$.
Nov 18, 2011 at 0:18 comment added Anton Fonarev I'd say that the proper question is whether such a projective variety is a shadow in the case where all the coefficients are finite and not infinitesimally small. Then the answer is affirmative.
Nov 18, 2011 at 0:13 comment added Anton Fonarev It is not always true: take some infinite $\omega\in\mathrm{F}$ (a hyperreal number, s.t. $n<\omega$ for any $n\in\mathbb{N}$). And the point [$\omega\ $:$\omega^2$] defined in $\mathbb{FP}^2$ by the obvious equation $x-\omega^{-1}y=0$.
Nov 17, 2011 at 22:40 history edited Martin Brandenburg
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Nov 17, 2011 at 22:06 history asked Daryl Cooper CC BY-SA 3.0