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Nov 12, 2011 at 11:20 comment added Max Horn @Abhinav: No, it should not. Clearly, the center of $G$ is contained in the normalizer of any subgroup of $G$. But $Z(G)\cap GL(n,Z)=\{I,-I\}$, so you cannot omit it if you want the full normalizer. On the other hand, Emerton's nice proof indeed requires scaling by an arbitrary scalar (matrix). And neither require adding the permutation matrices, as those are already contained in $GL(n,Z)$.
Nov 12, 2011 at 3:05 history edited KConrad CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 12, 2011 at 2:37 history edited Emerton CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 12, 2011 at 2:35 comment added Emerton Dear tomasz, Thanks for the correction. Regards, Matthew
Nov 11, 2011 at 21:15 comment added tomasz @Emerton: That's a very fine proof. But there is one point that I don't understand properly: Why is the image of $g(\mathbb{Z}^n)$ preserved by $GL(n,\mathbb{F}_p)$ ? It would be obvious to me, if each matrix in $GL(n,\mathbb{F}_p)$ were a mod p reduction from $GL(n,\mathbb{Z})$, what isn't the case, however. In effect, that doesn't matter, of course, since $g$ also normalizes $SL(n,\mathbb{Z})$ what maps surjectively to $SL(n,\mathbb{F}_p)$. Then one can use the rest of the argument verbatim with $SL$ in place of $GL$.
Nov 11, 2011 at 19:28 comment added Abhinav Kumar The automorphism group of $\mathbb{Z}^n$ (fixing the origin) contains the permutations and the diagonal matrices with $\pm 1$ entries. So $Z(G)$ in the statement (and proof) should be replaced by the semidirect product of these 2 groups, I think.
Nov 11, 2011 at 16:12 comment added Olod @Emerton: thank you very much indeed!
Nov 11, 2011 at 16:05 vote accept Olod
Nov 11, 2011 at 13:58 history answered Emerton CC BY-SA 3.0