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Nov 10, 2011 at 14:53 vote accept Murat Güngör
Nov 9, 2011 at 20:33 comment added Faisal As far as this question is concerned, admissibility is important because it gives us the equivalence $\tilde{\tilde{\pi}}=\pi$ (which I used in (2)). This equivalence doesn't hold for general inadmissible $\pi$.
Nov 9, 2011 at 20:21 comment added Matthew Daws @Faisel: Sure! But I think the original question wanted to know why there is an algebraic vector in the perp of $E_1$. That is, your answer seemed a bit brief, given what the original question asked (so I think maybe it won't be easy to understand). However, on a close reading of the original question, I see that $\pi$ is assumed "admissible". I personally don't understand what implications this has, but it seems to imply lots of powerful things; so maybe one needs to fully understand this definition...??
Nov 9, 2011 at 20:14 comment added Faisal In symbols, $\tilde{V} = (V^\ast)^\infty$.
Nov 9, 2011 at 20:04 comment added Faisal The contragredient is by definition the "smooth dual" representation (i.e. the subrep of the dual rep on the subspace of smooth vectors).
Nov 9, 2011 at 19:57 comment added Matthew Daws If I understand the question, the worry is about algebraic (=smooth) vectors-- here $x\in E$ is smooth if the stabilizer of $x$ for the $\pi$ action is an open subgroup of $G$. Could you say some words about this??
Nov 9, 2011 at 18:51 history answered Faisal CC BY-SA 3.0