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Nov 4, 2011 at 2:14 comment added Y. Zhao @Johan Andersson:Thank you so much!It is a clear and useful counterexample.
Nov 4, 2011 at 2:09 vote accept Y. Zhao
Nov 3, 2011 at 20:06 history edited Johan Andersson CC BY-SA 3.0
added 792 characters in body; edited body
Nov 3, 2011 at 19:42 comment added GH from MO @Paul: I had a similar comment that I deleted!
Nov 3, 2011 at 18:46 comment added paul garrett @GH Thanks for helping me out! Sorry for the inattention... :) I removed my silly question-comment.
Nov 3, 2011 at 18:42 comment added GH from MO @Paul: He considers $\exp(\eta(s))$, not $\eta(s)$.
Nov 3, 2011 at 18:41 comment added Johan Andersson well an entire function is of finite order if $f(s) \ll e^{|s|^c}$ for some $c>0$. I am not quite sure about the meromorphic analogue, but in case the meromorphic function is entire they should surely coincide. Of course even if $f(s) \ll e^{|s|^c}$ is of finite order the exponential $e^{f(s)}$ of this function should not in general be of finite order (unless $f(s)$ is a polynomial).
Nov 3, 2011 at 18:11 history answered Johan Andersson CC BY-SA 3.0