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Nov 22, 2011 at 14:48 vote accept Jethro
Nov 1, 2011 at 10:15 answer added Jan Boman timeline score: 12
Nov 1, 2011 at 8:23 answer added Igor Rivin timeline score: 6
Nov 1, 2011 at 6:32 comment added Will Sawin We know it up to a certain group of transformations, including translations. More specifically, take any function of absolute value $1$ with odd imaginary part and even real part, and multiply the fourier transformation by that. This will create a translation-ish transformation of the function that the modulus of the fourier transform cannot detect.
Nov 1, 2011 at 5:46 comment added Torsten Ekedahl If you translate $f$ you multiply $F$ by a function of absolute value $1$ so no.
Nov 1, 2011 at 5:17 history asked Jethro CC BY-SA 3.0