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Dec 18, 2011 at 22:08 vote accept Maurizio Monge
Nov 2, 2011 at 9:16 comment added Derek Holt I would still be interested in an answer to the original question - i.e. is the proposition true, and is there a reference?
Nov 1, 2011 at 16:08 vote accept Maurizio Monge
Dec 18, 2011 at 22:08
Nov 1, 2011 at 16:08 comment added Maurizio Monge By the way, I was noticing that in Bartel's proof $C$ is not required to be cyclic.
Oct 31, 2011 at 21:53 comment added Derek Holt Yes, because the inflation restriction sequence $H^1(G/H,V^H) \to H^1(G,V) \to H^1(H,V)$ is exact - that one is always exact.
Oct 31, 2011 at 21:04 comment added Maurizio Monge One last question: is it possible to see with the same methods that $G$ in $V\rtimes{}G$ is the unique complement, up to conjugacy?
Oct 31, 2011 at 16:17 comment added Alex B. Dear Derek, indeed, for the exactness of inflation-restriction, one needs $H^1(H,V)=0$ (and the term on the right was not quite right), but since it's the same argument as for $H^2$, I might as well immediately use the fact that inflation is then an isomorphism, as Steve pointed out. Editing now...
Oct 31, 2011 at 16:16 history edited Alex B. CC BY-SA 3.0
Simplified the argument a little bit, cleaned up the post
Oct 31, 2011 at 15:51 comment added Derek Holt That's true, but it doesn't really answer my question!
Oct 31, 2011 at 15:43 comment added Steve D Instead of "2" above, I meant any $n$.
Oct 31, 2011 at 15:42 comment added Steve D I believe in this case, since $|H|$ and $|V|$ are coprime, there is always an isomorphism between $H^2(G/H,V^H)$ and $H^2(G,V)$.
Oct 31, 2011 at 15:23 comment added Derek Holt Where are you getting the exactness of that inflation-restriction sequence from? It is not exact in general. For example, if $G$ is a Klein 4-group, $|H| = 2$ and $|V|=2$, then $|H^2(G/H,V^H)| = |H^2(H,V)|=2$ but $H^2(G,V)| = 8$.
Oct 31, 2011 at 15:18 comment added Maurizio Monge In any case thank you very much for illustrating how group cohomology can be used to prove this.
Oct 31, 2011 at 15:08 comment added Maurizio Monge well, thanks, my proof once $V$ is known to be $C$-free my proof was even shorter: the extension by $H$ split by Schur-Zassenhaus, let $\sigma$ be a lifting of generator of $C$, then $\sigma^{p^k}$ is in the socle of $V$, but replacing it with $\sigma{}v$ for a suitable $v$ we can assure $(\sigma{}v)^{p^k}=\sigma^{p^k}N(v)$ to be $0$ if $V$ is free. I expected these facts to be very standard, if you had to prove it yourself in your paper I will probably do the same.
Oct 31, 2011 at 13:30 history edited Alex B. CC BY-SA 3.0
Gave the full proof here, instead of just a reference.
Oct 31, 2011 at 13:21 history answered Alex B. CC BY-SA 3.0