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Oct 18, 2011 at 23:29 comment added Kevin Smith The obvious typo being that i mean $1/2$ not $2$.
Oct 18, 2011 at 23:26 vote accept Kevin Smith
Oct 18, 2011 at 23:17 comment added Kevin Smith Thanks for this explanation, Greg. The kind of inequality I am getting at certainly requires further hypotheses on $f$- I think I should perhaps restrict $f(p)$. I am not really interested in translations or periodicities. For example, there may be a good reason why $$\limsup_{x\rightarrow\infty}|M(x)|\geq \frac{x^2}{\zeta^2(2)}$$ or better, trivial as it may be when one has the Mellin transform. You have answered my question as it stands though so I accept you answer.
Oct 18, 2011 at 19:22 history answered Greg Martin CC BY-SA 3.0