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Jul 12, 2012 at 19:39 vote accept m07kl
Oct 18, 2011 at 16:57 comment added m07kl ok, I see the trouble.
Oct 18, 2011 at 15:35 comment added Jesse Peterson @m07kl: So what is wrong with choosing $q_y' = p_y$?
Oct 18, 2011 at 15:18 comment added m07kl For each $y\in Y$ we can find a $q_y$ which is equivalent to $p_y$ (we don't know whether $q_y$ equals $p_y$ or not, let's say they are different), but $y\mapsto q_y$ is not necessarily measurable in the sense that $Q=\int_Y^{\oplus}q_ydy$ makes sense. So I want to find $q'_y$ which is equivalent to $q_y$ in $B_y$ and $y\mapsto q'_y$ is measurable. I need a kind of measurable selection theorem. Thanks for your attention :)
Oct 18, 2011 at 12:46 comment added Jesse Peterson That's certainly one interpretation. I wonder if the OP would mind clarifying what is meant by "good", "choice" (since the $q_y$ are already defined), and "up to equivalence"?
Oct 18, 2011 at 7:47 comment added Dmitri Pavlov @Jesse: I presume that when the OP says “good choice of $q_y$ up to equivalence” he means the choice of a representative of the equivalence class of a section with respect to sets of measure 0.
Oct 17, 2011 at 21:40 comment added Jesse Peterson I don't think the question makes sense as is. Why not choose $q_y = p_y$?
Oct 17, 2011 at 19:58 answer added Dmitri Pavlov timeline score: 3
Oct 17, 2011 at 17:50 history asked m07kl CC BY-SA 3.0