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Feb 3, 2012 at 5:27 comment added user6976 @Gao: Because the free group embeds into the congruence subgroup of $SL(2,\mathbb{Z})$ corresponding to any prime $p$.
Feb 3, 2012 at 4:53 comment added Gao 2Man Why is a free group residually (finite p-)group? Is there a suitable reference for this fact?
Oct 11, 2011 at 3:09 vote accept CommunityBot
Oct 11, 2011 at 3:07 comment added user2529 Thank you Mark so much for your detailed answers and proofs.
Oct 10, 2011 at 23:14 history edited user6976 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 10, 2011 at 12:57 history edited user6976 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 9, 2011 at 23:25 history edited user6976 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 9, 2011 at 10:09 history edited user6976 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 9, 2011 at 9:53 history answered user6976 CC BY-SA 3.0