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Oct 11, 2011 at 3:09 vote accept CommunityBot
Oct 10, 2011 at 10:07 comment added user6976 Yes, the free product of $F*G$ where $F$ is free and $G$ is a free product of ${\mathbb Z}/2{\mathbb Z}$ is residually 2-group, hence residually nilpotent. For finitely many factors it follows from Gruenberg's result I mentioned in my answer. For infinitely many factors it follows from the standard nonsense. Take any word in generators, then apply Gruenberg's result to the subgroup generated by only the letters that appear in that word.
Oct 10, 2011 at 8:47 history edited user2529 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 10, 2011 at 6:36 answer added James timeline score: 2
Oct 9, 2011 at 21:21 comment added user6976 In fact the free product of abelian groups is always residually solvable because the derived subgroup is free.
Oct 9, 2011 at 21:14 comment added user6976 They are probably residually solvable.
Oct 9, 2011 at 20:23 comment added Andreas Thom Maybe the right thing to expect is that any such free product is residually elementary amenable.
Oct 9, 2011 at 9:53 answer added user6976 timeline score: 17
Oct 9, 2011 at 9:46 comment added Torsten Ekedahl Indeed, let $G$ be the free quotient of $\mathbb Z/2$ and $\mathbb Z/3$. Any nilpotent quotient of $G$ is torsion and hence finite thus a product of $p$-groups for primes $p$. It is also generated by one element of order dividing $2$ and one of dividing $3$. This forces the quotient to be cyclic.
Oct 9, 2011 at 6:51 comment added Will Sawin Intuitively, I wouldn't think it would be true for, say, 2 cyclic groups. Is it, in fact, true for such simple examples?
Oct 9, 2011 at 6:20 history asked user2529 CC BY-SA 3.0