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Oct 6, 2011 at 20:34 vote accept CommunityBot
Oct 6, 2011 at 9:52 answer added Pietro Majer timeline score: 0
Oct 3, 2011 at 21:39 comment added Pietro Majer Actually I think what is needed is the linear independence of the limit family; see below.
Oct 3, 2011 at 21:32 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 3, 2011 at 19:52 comment added user12713 Thanks Pietro. You are right about the generalization. About your comment regarding linear independence: What if $\lbrace\mu_1^n,\dots,\mu_J^n\rbrace$ was always a linearly independent set for each given $n\in\mathbb{N}$? It happens that the particular research problem I am working on does have that restriction
Oct 3, 2011 at 19:27 comment added Pietro Majer As it is, the generalization is false, even in $\mathbb{R}$ (as a TVS) and $J=1$. Take $\mu^n_1:=1/n\to\mu_1:=0$, and $\mu^n=\mu^*=1$, for all $n$.
Oct 3, 2011 at 18:20 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 0
Oct 3, 2011 at 18:00 history asked user12713 CC BY-SA 3.0