Timeline for When is a bijective map between bundles a homeomorphism?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jan 24, 2012 at 14:12 | vote | accept | berl13 | ||
| Sep 30, 2011 at 6:57 | answer | added | Dan Ramras | timeline score: 1 | |
| Sep 26, 2011 at 21:12 | comment | added | euklid345 | I think there are cases where you are in luck, for example vector bundles. | |
| Sep 26, 2011 at 21:10 | comment | added | euklid345 | what is a heomeomorphism? | |
| Sep 26, 2011 at 14:50 | comment | added | Jack Huizenga | Take $F$ to be a space admitting a self-bijection that is not a homeomorphism, and take $X$ to be a one-point space. More generally, an obvious necessary condition for a general result is that every continuous bijection of $F$ be a homeomorphism. | |
| Sep 26, 2011 at 14:31 | comment | added | Igor Belegradek | Do you requre that $f$ descends to $h$? If so, the question makes sense, but the answer is obvious: $f$ need not be a homeomorphism, e.g. take $X_i$ to be a single point (or more generally, let the bundles be trivial), but choose $f$ so that its inverse discontinuous. | |
| Sep 26, 2011 at 14:02 | comment | added | Will Sawin | There should probably be some sort of commutative diagram. | |
| Sep 26, 2011 at 13:23 | comment | added | Autumn Kent | What does $h$ have to do with it? | |
| Sep 26, 2011 at 13:14 | history | asked | berl13 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |