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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
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Sep 25, 2011 at 23:01 vote accept James D. Taylor
Sep 25, 2011 at 22:15 answer added Qing Liu timeline score: 28
Sep 25, 2011 at 21:30 comment added Georges Elencwajg @Ali: the glueing is only possible if $K=K'$. And when you say "the affine line", it should be $Spec(\mathbb Z)$. However your basic insight is absolutely correct (but I hadn't seen it when I started composing my answer !)
Sep 25, 2011 at 21:23 comment added Joël And for the second question, you mean "open subscheme of a normal separated, irreducible scheme? Otherwise two copies of Spec $O_k$ is a counter-example.
Sep 25, 2011 at 21:03 answer added Georges Elencwajg timeline score: 3
Sep 25, 2011 at 20:07 comment added Joël You mean "separated", not "separable" I suppose.
Sep 25, 2011 at 19:51 vote accept James D. Taylor
Sep 25, 2011 at 20:41
Sep 25, 2011 at 19:03 comment added James D. Taylor I'm not sure what you mean, but I want to require that $S$ be separable.
Sep 25, 2011 at 19:02 answer added Will Sawin timeline score: 3
Sep 25, 2011 at 18:49 comment added user16974 Is it possible to glue $Spec (O_K)$ and $Spec(O_{K'})$ along some open set? For example consider the affine line with a double point.
Sep 25, 2011 at 18:05 history edited James D. Taylor CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 25, 2011 at 18:01 comment added James D. Taylor Yes, I want it to be connected, and equal to the union of Spec's of rings of integers (this implies normal, of course). I'll edit the question.
Sep 25, 2011 at 17:58 comment added Donu Arapura Are you requiring the scheme to be normal in the question? That seems to be what you wanted in the discussion leading up to it. Without some hypothesis, it is trivially false: take a disjoint union of $Spec(O_K)$ with something else.
Sep 25, 2011 at 17:49 history edited James D. Taylor CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 25, 2011 at 17:41 history asked James D. Taylor CC BY-SA 3.0