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Sep 25, 2011 at 17:22 comment added Ori Gurel-Gurevich If the expectation of $\tau$ could be infinite, then the statement you're trying to prove is false. For example, take a simple random walk on the integers.
Sep 25, 2011 at 16:34 comment added Elena Yudovina No, it doesn't. Also, I forgot the assumption that the $T_i$ are bounded by independent copies of $\tau$ (without some sort of independence, the answer is obviously no)
Sep 25, 2011 at 16:06 comment added Ori Gurel-Gurevich Does $\tau$ have finite expectation?
Sep 25, 2011 at 15:04 history asked Elena Yudovina CC BY-SA 3.0