Skip to main content
7 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Sep 21, 2011 at 22:16 comment added George Lowther @guykatriel: By the Hahn-Jordan decomposition you have a Borel set $A$ with $\mu^+(E)=\mu(E\cap A)$ and $\mu^-(E)=-\mu(E\setminus A)$ for all $E$. If $\mu^+(S)\le\mu^-(S)$ for all Borel $S\subseteq V$ then that would imply $$0\le\mu^+(V)=\mu^+(V\cap A)\le\mu^-(V\cap A)=0.$$
Sep 21, 2011 at 15:02 vote accept user17970
Sep 21, 2011 at 15:02 vote accept user17970
Sep 21, 2011 at 15:02
Sep 21, 2011 at 7:12 comment added user17970 .. I mean: to posit that the restriction of $\mu$ to any open set is not a positive measure and not a negative measure.
Sep 21, 2011 at 7:02 comment added user17970 Can you clarify one point: why would $\mu^+(S)\leq \mu^-(S)$ for all Borel $S\subset V$ imply that $\mu^+(V)=0$? I think you have to posit in advance that the measure $\mu$ is not positive and not negative on any open set.
Sep 20, 2011 at 22:33 history edited George Lowther CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 27 characters in body; edited body; added 2 characters in body
Sep 20, 2011 at 22:25 history answered George Lowther CC BY-SA 3.0