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Sep 21, 2011 at 15:02 vote accept user17970
Sep 21, 2011 at 15:02 vote accept user17970
Sep 21, 2011 at 15:02
Sep 20, 2011 at 22:25 answer added George Lowther timeline score: 12
Sep 20, 2011 at 20:59 comment added George Lowther ...ok, bounded above by one. Still no, with the example I just gave (the signed measure just has to have no atoms for $S$ to satisfy your property).
Sep 20, 2011 at 20:57 comment added George Lowther Still no. Let $\mu$ be any finite signed measure on $[0,1]$ whose positive and negative parts $\mu^+,\mu^-$ have full support (nonzero measure on every nonempty open set). Then let $S\subseteq C([0,1])$ be the functions $f$ with $\int f\,d\mu=0$.
Sep 20, 2011 at 20:55 comment added user17970 ... and bounded from above by $1$
Sep 20, 2011 at 20:54 history edited user17970 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 37 characters in body
Sep 20, 2011 at 20:49 comment added user17970 Thanks George... I have corrected the question to demand that the functions in $S$ be positive. This is the situation I am really interested in.
Sep 20, 2011 at 20:48 history edited user17970 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 20, 2011 at 20:42 comment added George Lowther No. For $X=[0,1]$, you can let $S$ be the set of functions with $\int\_0^1f(x)\,dx=0$.
Sep 20, 2011 at 20:31 history asked user17970 CC BY-SA 3.0