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Oct 16, 2009 at 19:42 comment added Andrew Critch Yes, I've seen that fallacious argument as support for the axiom.
Oct 16, 2009 at 18:16 comment added Eric Wofsey As is discussed on the Wikipedia page, the "intuitive" argument here is based on the fallacy that all sets should be measurable.
Oct 16, 2009 at 16:14 history edited Andrew Critch CC BY-SA 2.5
decided not confusing
Oct 16, 2009 at 16:04 history answered Andrew Critch CC BY-SA 2.5