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Sep 14, 2011 at 14:14 comment added Jess Riedel Ha, very embarrassing on my part, David. Good thing this is saved on the internet for perpetuity. Thanks so much for the help.
Sep 13, 2011 at 1:58 comment added David Moews Setting $Y_M:=Y$, there is no way to pick scaling constants $a_M$ such that $a_M Y_M$ converges to something nontrivial. $|Y_M|^{1/\sqrt{M}}$ will converge if rescaled appropriately.
Sep 13, 2011 at 1:07 comment added David Moews To compute the variance of $Y$, observe that $Y^2$ is the product of $M$ independent random variables, each distributed as $\cos^2 W$, where $W$ is uniform. Since $\cos^2$ has average value $\frac{1}{2}$, and the r.v.s are independent, ${\bf E}[Y^2]$ is the product of $M$ copies of $\frac{1}{2}$, which is $2^{-M}$.
Sep 12, 2011 at 17:19 vote accept Jess Riedel
Sep 12, 2011 at 17:19 comment added Jess Riedel Thanks very much for this compact and clear explanation. You are right about $Y$ not approaching a normal distribution. I discovered an an error in my code this morning, and the true distribution it approaches has much heavier tails than a Gaussian. Could you please elaborate on how you know that Var[$Y$] = $2^{-M}$? Is it correct to express Var[$Y$] in terms of the moments of the r.v. ln($Y$) (which is normally distributed), yielding a taylor series? Are there convergence issues I should worry about as a physicist?
Sep 9, 2011 at 22:50 history edited David Moews CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 9, 2011 at 22:36 history answered David Moews CC BY-SA 3.0