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Sep 11, 2011 at 20:12 vote accept Jan S
Sep 11, 2011 at 20:12 comment added Jan S Yes, sorry I didn't read carefully enough. Thanks for your answer.
Sep 11, 2011 at 9:59 comment added Marcel Bischoff Exactly like Pedro wrote...
Sep 9, 2011 at 14:33 comment added Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro Actually what Marcel shows goes the other way round, that is, any $v$ orthogonal to $E(\mathscr{D}(\mathscr{O}))$ is also orthogonal to $E(\mathscr{S}(\mathbb{R}^2))$. As the latter subspace is dense, we must have $v=0$.
Sep 9, 2011 at 8:45 comment added Jan S @Marcel: There is one thing troubling me. Obviously $\mathcal{D}(\mathcal{O})\subset \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^2)$. Now you have shown that all vectors orthogonal to $E(\mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^2))$ are also orthogonal to $E(\mathcal{D}(\mathcal{O}))$, but not that there are no nontrivial vectors orthogonal to $E(\mathcal{D}(\mathcal{O}))$. Or otherwise stated, why does your proof not show that any linear subspace of $\mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^2)$ is mapped into a dense st in $H$, which is obvioulsy false for the space spanned by only one function?
Sep 8, 2011 at 14:47 comment added Pedro Lauridsen Ribeiro Ah yes, this is a direct path to show that $E(\mathscr{D}(O))$ is dense. My answer above actually suggests that an argument similar to the one used for Schwartz functions (which is essentially equivalent to showing that Hermite polynomials are an orthonormal basis in the weighted $L^2$ space whose weight is given by a Gaussian) cannot possibly work for $\mathscr{D}$.
Sep 8, 2011 at 9:46 history edited Marcel Bischoff CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 8, 2011 at 9:40 history answered Marcel Bischoff CC BY-SA 3.0