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Sep 26, 2011 at 15:17 history edited Adam CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 8, 2011 at 12:40 answer added Karl Schwede timeline score: 4
Sep 8, 2011 at 11:18 answer added Sándor Kovács timeline score: 4
Sep 8, 2011 at 6:19 comment added JSpecter No, $\mathbb{Q}[X,Y]/(X^2,XY)$ localized at $(x,y)$ provides a counterexample.
Sep 8, 2011 at 6:05 history asked Adam CC BY-SA 3.0