Timeline for Are morphisms from affine schemes to arbitrary schemes affine morphisms?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
3 events
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| Sep 8, 2011 at 0:24 | comment | added | Erick Knight | Jacob, thanks for this answer. This is closer to the question that I had in mind (if the schemes are "nice"), but not the literal question that I asked. | |
| Sep 8, 2011 at 0:20 | comment | added | Ben Wieland | It seems to me worth weakening the hypothesis from the diagonal being closed ("separated") to the diagonal being affine ("semi-separated") because that condition is equivalent to the inclusion of affine opens being affine. Then the argument shows that if no inclusions of affine open in $Y$ is a counterexample, then no map from an affine to $Y$ is a counterexample. | |
| Sep 7, 2011 at 23:33 | history | answered | Jacob Lurie | CC BY-SA 3.0 |