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Sep 7, 2011 at 13:30 comment added Peter Samuelson In general when you edit a question it's good to make it clear what the edit was so that if people don't change their answers, then readers can still figure out what question the answers address.
Sep 7, 2011 at 9:38 answer added Ben McKay timeline score: 9
Sep 7, 2011 at 7:18 answer added Torsten Ekedahl timeline score: 7
Sep 7, 2011 at 5:28 comment added Michael @ Georges: Sorry I was assuming the spaces involved are manifolds. I've had it edited. Please also see my comment to your answer.
Sep 7, 2011 at 5:25 history edited Michael CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 7, 2011 at 5:18 comment added Michael @ David: That's a question I am also interested in knowing the answer to.
Sep 6, 2011 at 7:36 comment added David Roberts What about when the spaces involved are locally contractible?
Sep 6, 2011 at 7:35 comment added Georges Elencwajg @Michael: I am afraid I find your assertion (1) suspicious, since it is not true even if both $f$ and $g$ are covering spaces. Could you please clarify what you mean by supplying an argument or a reference?
Sep 6, 2011 at 0:40 comment added Charlie Frohman I stand corrected.
Sep 6, 2011 at 0:16 answer added Georges Elencwajg timeline score: 11
Sep 6, 2011 at 0:16 comment added Georges Elencwajg @Charlie: it doesn't follow from the definition nor from anything else because it is false; see my answer.
Sep 5, 2011 at 20:59 comment added Michael To Charlie: Just to make sure we have the same definition in mind, a bundle projection requires a cover of the base space by locally trivial neighborhoods and a typical fiber. Using this definition, it is not obvious to me why the composition should be a bundle projection. Could you elaborate?
Sep 5, 2011 at 20:11 history edited Michael CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 5, 2011 at 20:08 comment added Charlie Frohman Yes. It follows directly from the definition.
Sep 5, 2011 at 20:02 history asked Michael CC BY-SA 3.0