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Nov 12, 2011 at 3:54 vote accept Yaping Yang
Sep 2, 2011 at 7:58 history edited Torsten Ekedahl CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 2, 2011 at 6:56 comment added Julian Kuelshammer You are right. The situation is more similar to the polynomial ring in one variable. What you do is conceptually reducing the algebra $A$ to $e_1Ae_1$, where $e_1$ is the trivial path for one point. $e_1Ae_1$ is then the polynomial ring in one variable, which has only finite dimensional representations. By general theory the functor $F: A-mod\to e_1Ae_1-mod, M\mapsto e_1 M$ sends irreducibles to irreducibles (or zero, which can be excluded in our case). Your argument then shows that irreducible modules are finite dimensional for the polynomial ring.
Sep 2, 2011 at 6:15 history edited Torsten Ekedahl CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 2, 2011 at 5:49 history answered Torsten Ekedahl CC BY-SA 3.0