Timeline for Zero sum of binomial coefficients
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 27, 2016 at 21:31 | answer | added | Pietro Majer | timeline score: 1 | |
| Sep 1, 2011 at 20:01 | comment | added | Shir | For general reference, this one is a weaker version of an open problem. Nice to know this version has a relatively simple answer. Thanks guys. The stronger version: mathoverflow.net/questions/74191/… | |
| S Aug 30, 2011 at 9:19 | vote | accept | Shir | ||
| Aug 30, 2011 at 9:19 | vote | accept | Shir | ||
| S Aug 30, 2011 at 9:19 | |||||
| Aug 30, 2011 at 9:18 | vote | accept | Shir | ||
| Aug 30, 2011 at 9:19 | |||||
| Aug 30, 2011 at 9:07 | answer | added | darij grinberg | timeline score: 17 | |
| Aug 30, 2011 at 9:07 | answer | added | Mikael de la Salle | timeline score: 12 | |
| Aug 30, 2011 at 8:58 | comment | added | Roland Bacher | Working modulo a prime q≥N one gets $p(kq)=(−1)kp(0)$ for all $k\leq q$. This makes your guess very plausible. | |
| Aug 30, 2011 at 8:15 | history | asked | Shir | CC BY-SA 3.0 |