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Sep 3, 2011 at 7:51 comment added Daniel Mansfield What do you mean by "simple invariant measure"?
Aug 31, 2011 at 3:31 comment added Raj I suppose my next question would be how does a probability invariant measure differ from a simple invariant measure
Aug 30, 2011 at 22:08 comment added Daniel Mansfield Thank you @Fedor. What you say is an improvement to my inaccurate description. @Raj, can you make edge-counting into a probability measure on graphs of countable size?
Aug 30, 2011 at 15:17 comment added Raj But couldnt the measure be as trivial as "number of edges" in which case $m$ would assign the same number to two sets of graphs with permuted vertices. And then OBVIOUSLY every graph with trivial dcl has an invariant measure, namely the trivial one! (same number of edges)
Aug 30, 2011 at 7:07 comment added Fedor Petrov "the measure assigns the same number to sets of isomorphic graphs" I think, it is misleading formulation: the point is that the isomorphism must be the same. The correct one could be "the measure assigns the same number to two sets of graphs, one of which is obtained from another by the same permutation of vertices"
Aug 30, 2011 at 4:45 history edited Daniel Mansfield CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 30, 2011 at 4:21 history edited Daniel Mansfield CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 30, 2011 at 3:32 history answered Daniel Mansfield CC BY-SA 3.0