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Aug 30, 2011 at 4:51 vote accept Alex Botros
Aug 30, 2011 at 4:48 answer added Greg Martin timeline score: 5
Aug 30, 2011 at 4:13 comment added Alex Botros So, what would then happen if $n$ were even?
Aug 30, 2011 at 4:05 comment added Gjergji Zaimi The question has been posted at math.stackexchange.com/questions/60648/…
Aug 30, 2011 at 4:05 comment added Alex Botros FANTASTIC!!!! That's true! thank you
Aug 30, 2011 at 3:59 comment added Junkie When $d$ is squarefree, then $2^{\omega(d)}=\tau(d)$, the number of divisors. If I am correct, you are computing $\sum_{d|n'} \mu(d)\tau(d)/d=\prod_{p|n'} (1+(-1)\cdot 2/p)$, where $n'$ is the squarefree kernel of $n$.
Aug 30, 2011 at 3:22 comment added Gjergji Zaimi In my opinion this would be more appropriate at math.stackexchange.
Aug 30, 2011 at 3:21 comment added Alex Botros So, I found the second equality again on Wikiproofs. I think it would suffice if I could prove that the first sum is greater than zero. Does anybody think that's possible without going too deeply into the actual number of prime factors of a random divisor of $n$?
Aug 30, 2011 at 3:06 history asked Alex Botros CC BY-SA 3.0