Timeline for What is $TC(\Sigma^\infty \Omega X)$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
10 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Feb 13, 2019 at 7:49 | history | edited | Dan Petersen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 7 characters in body
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Dec 2, 2009 at 18:45 | comment | added | Reid Barton | Yes, my thoughts exactly (that's the behavior I want). | |
Dec 2, 2009 at 18:30 | comment | added | Tyler Lawson | Right, that makes sense and I see where you're going now. I believe you're correct and that mapping object does map to $TC$. It seems, however, like the mapping object is p-equivalent to $X$ itself and $TC$ is p-local, so this map may just factor through evaluation at the basepoint? | |
Dec 2, 2009 at 17:18 | comment | added | Reid Barton | Oops, where that error message is was just supposed to be $(\Lambda X)^C \to \Lambda X$. | |
Dec 2, 2009 at 17:17 | comment | added | Reid Barton | Thanks, this is a great explanation. For my "space-level $TC$", I was imagining using the $c$th power map $(\Lambda X)^C → \Lambda X$ for $R$ (which is an equivalence of spaces), so $TR(\Omega X, p)$ would just be $\Lambda X$ with $F$ acting as the $p$th power map. Then $TC(\Omega X, p)$ would be $\mathrm{Map}(B\mathbb{Z}[1/p], X)$, I think. That maps to $\Omega^{\infty} TC(\Sigma^\infty \Omega X, p)$, right? | |
Dec 2, 2009 at 3:46 | vote | accept | Reid Barton | ||
Dec 2, 2009 at 3:46 | vote | accept | Reid Barton | ||
Dec 2, 2009 at 3:46 | |||||
Dec 2, 2009 at 3:43 | history | edited | Tyler Lawson | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
dumb mistake
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Dec 2, 2009 at 3:08 | history | edited | Tyler Lawson | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
elaboration
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Dec 1, 2009 at 5:46 | history | answered | Tyler Lawson | CC BY-SA 2.5 |