Skip to main content

Timeline for Point mapping induces a set mapping

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

6 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Sep 6, 2011 at 4:19 history edited Daniel Mansfield CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 2 characters in body; edited tags
Aug 26, 2011 at 23:32 vote accept Daniel Mansfield
Aug 26, 2011 at 14:44 answer added Igor Rivin timeline score: 1
Aug 26, 2011 at 2:09 comment added David Roberts Maybe I'm mistaken about the finiteness making things easier. :)
Aug 26, 2011 at 2:07 comment added David Roberts I'm not sure what theorem, but quickly scanning the paper, the condition 'both ladder sets are algebra complete' seems to imply that the family ${\theta_k\}$ defines a mapping of Boolean algebras $B \to B'$. The theorem you are looking for is probably something along the lines of: given a mapping of Boolean algebras $B\to B'$ where $B$ and $B'$ are $\sigma$-algebras of finite measure spaces $X$ and $X'$ resp., one has a map $X\to X'$ of the underlying sets (finite because this is what the authors assume). Finiteness here makes this much easier. But I'm not an expert in this field.
Aug 26, 2011 at 1:52 history asked Daniel Mansfield CC BY-SA 3.0