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Aug 13, 2011 at 16:41 history edited naf CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 13, 2011 at 16:33 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
Aug 13, 2011 at 16:33 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine Ok Ulrich, I got it. I was too quick with your key remark: The key point is that $H^{p,q}$ as defined above is $0$ if $p+q>n$ but not if $p+q<n$. Thanks a lot for clearing out my confusion.
Aug 13, 2011 at 14:23 comment added naf Since $f$ is defined over $\mathbb{Q}$ (so commutes with complex conjugation) one also gets $f(\bar{F}^qH) \subset \bar{F}^q H'$. Your counterexample doesn't apply here since the conclusion uses $n > n'$.
Aug 13, 2011 at 14:08 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine You have $f(F^P H)\subseteq F^p H'$ but I don't quite see how you get from that $f(H^{p,q})\subseteq H'^{p,q}$. In fact my counterexample shows that it is wrong, isn't?
Aug 13, 2011 at 14:06 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine But Ulrich I'm confused, you only seem to use the fact that $n\neq n'$ and moreover what about my counterexample
Aug 13, 2011 at 14:01 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
Aug 13, 2011 at 14:04
Aug 13, 2011 at 13:53 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
Aug 13, 2011 at 14:00
Aug 13, 2011 at 13:49 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
Aug 13, 2011 at 13:53
Aug 13, 2011 at 12:10 comment added Donu Arapura .... to accept.
Aug 13, 2011 at 12:08 comment added Donu Arapura Yes, that's it. I somehow mislead myself into believing that filtered $\mathbb{Q}$-linear maps between pure Hodge structures are morphisms, but this only true if the weights are the same. Sometimes the obvious interpretation is the hardest.
Aug 13, 2011 at 10:05 history answered naf CC BY-SA 3.0