Timeline for does equi-integrability implies uniform convergence?
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9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 9, 2011 at 14:27 | comment | added | Gerald Edgar | and no, $\delta$-fine means: $|x_{i+1}-x_{i}| \le \delta(\xi_i)$. | |
| Aug 9, 2011 at 14:24 | comment | added | Gerald Edgar | In the closed version of the question, Emil Jeřábek says: ... I think that the intended definition of HK-equi-integrability should read: for every $\epsilon>0$ there exists a gauge $\delta$ such that for every $n$ and every $\delta$-fine partition $\mathcal P$, $|S(f_n,\mathcal P)−\int f_n|\le \epsilon$. | |
| Aug 9, 2011 at 13:26 | comment | added | Pietro Majer | Oh I didn't notice all these clones of the question. | |
| Aug 9, 2011 at 13:23 | comment | added | Pietro Majer | no special point, but to have a clear question. | |
| Aug 9, 2011 at 12:43 | answer | added | Gerald Edgar | timeline score: 0 | |
| Aug 9, 2011 at 12:06 | comment | added | Emil Jeřábek | This question is a duplicate (slightly expanded) of mathoverflow.net/questions/72447 . @Pietro: The whole question is about Henstock–Kurzweil integral. What would be the point of asking $f_n$ to be Riemann integrable? | |
| Aug 9, 2011 at 11:37 | comment | added | Pietro Majer | Please confirm: 1) The $f_n$ are assumed Riemann integrable. 2) Here the norm $\|\cdot\|_X$ is just the absolute value. 3) Here $\delta$-fine means $x_{i+1}-x_i\le \delta(\epsilon)$ for $i=0,\dots, n-1$. | |
| Aug 9, 2011 at 10:25 | history | edited | Emil Jeřábek |
fix tags
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| Aug 9, 2011 at 9:53 | history | asked | Sanket A. A. Tikare | CC BY-SA 3.0 |