Skip to main content
9 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Aug 9, 2011 at 14:09 vote accept Angelo Lucia
Aug 8, 2011 at 19:34 comment added Bill Johnson Sure; zero. I is the identity operator.
Aug 8, 2011 at 8:39 comment added Angelo Lucia ...but it still has a unique fixed point, right?
Aug 8, 2011 at 7:52 history edited Bill Johnson CC BY-SA 3.0
Corrected the interchange of X and Y; added 1 characters in body
Aug 7, 2011 at 23:17 comment added Bill Johnson As for having the same distance on $X$ and $Y$ when $X=Y$, that is not possible when e.g. $X$ is the countable product of lines. For this space $I/2$ is not a contraction under any compatible metric.
Aug 7, 2011 at 21:29 comment added Angelo Lucia I meant $\sum 2^{-n} (\left\lVert x-y \right\rVert \wedge k)$ on $Y$.
Aug 7, 2011 at 20:12 vote accept Angelo Lucia
Aug 7, 2011 at 21:25
Aug 7, 2011 at 20:03 comment added Angelo Lucia I understand the idea, but I would say that if I take $ \sum 2^{-n} ({\left\lVert x-y\right\rVert} \wedge 1)$ on $X$, I need $\sum 2^{-n} ({\left\lVert x-y\right\rVert} \wedge 1/k)$ on $Y$. Anyway... what about maps from $X$ into himself? Are maps $f:X\toX$ satisfying $\left\lVert f(x) -f(y)\right\rVert \le k \left \lVert x-y \right \rVert$, with $k<1$, distance-contraction (and thus have a unique fixed point)? maybe this is a different question...
Aug 6, 2011 at 16:27 history answered Bill Johnson CC BY-SA 3.0