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S Feb 3, 2016 at 18:41 history suggested Snow CC BY-SA 3.0
Editted very confusing notation. Now X and U only mean one thing.
Feb 3, 2016 at 18:24 review Suggested edits
S Feb 3, 2016 at 18:41
Nov 16, 2015 at 8:18 comment added Matthieu Romagny I agree it is not clear why $D(X,Y)$ is not principal. Also the role of $U$ and $V$ is not clear: can you take $U=V=1$ ?
May 15, 2015 at 19:36 comment added Isac Hedén @Alison Miller: Take f_1=X, f_2=Y with notation from Hartshorne exercise II.2.17. What we need, is that U_X and U_Y are affine, and this obviously holds since U_X is the principal open subset D(X) of Spec(A), and similarly for U_Y.
Dec 29, 2014 at 6:12 comment added Jonathan Wise How do you show $D(X,Y)$ is not principal?
Oct 4, 2014 at 1:53 comment added Alison Miller Why are the open sets X_f and X_g affine?
Jan 31, 2013 at 9:09 comment added solbap @benblumsmith see Hartshorne excercise II.2.17
Nov 27, 2012 at 1:19 comment added benblumsmith Why does $Yf+Xg=1$ imply that $U$ is affine?
Jan 16, 2012 at 19:32 comment added Thomas Kahle You have used $U$ twice... but well.
Dec 29, 2009 at 1:23 comment added Martin Brandenburg finally an easy example :-)
Dec 20, 2009 at 8:07 history edited Hailong Dao CC BY-SA 2.5
deleted 1 characters in body
Nov 30, 2009 at 1:57 history answered Hailong Dao CC BY-SA 2.5