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Apr 6, 2022 at 0:50 history edited Will Chen CC BY-SA 4.0
Corrected the definition of $Z$. It used to say $Z = f^{-1}(Y)$.
Jul 10, 2019 at 12:52 comment added user45765 Ah, I see. Thanks a lot for clarification. The essential reasoning is to eliminate euler characteristic of intersection part by codimension 2. Then mayer-vietoris follows easily.
Jul 10, 2019 at 5:26 comment added Jack Huizenga @user45765: If you cover $X$ by $X - Z$ and a neighborhood of $Z$, then the intersection will be a neighborhood of Z with Z removed. In nice situations this will have the homotopy type of a bundle of spheres over Z, where the dimension of the spheres is one less than the real codimension of Z in X. So if Z has even codimension the spheres have odd dimension, hence Euler characteristic zero. Then the neighborhood of Z has Euler characteristic zero, and your Mayer-vietoris argument will work.
Jun 1, 2019 at 21:48 comment added user45765 Sorry for a late question. Why $\chi(X-Z)=\chi(X)-\chi(Z)$ requires $Z$ having even real codimension here? Should this not be application of Myer-vietoris type argument here?
Aug 3, 2011 at 16:20 history edited Jack Huizenga CC BY-SA 3.0
added 1 characters in body
Aug 3, 2011 at 3:42 history answered Jack Huizenga CC BY-SA 3.0