Skip to main content
3 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Feb 23, 2016 at 18:30 comment added user20948 I want to add a more elementary argument: Suppose $x,y\in M\setminus N$.Take any path $p\colon I\to M$ with $p(0)=x$ and $p(1)=y$. We can firstly perturb it into a path such that $\{\,t\in I\,\vert\,p(t)\in N\}$ is finite (Hint: partition $I$ so that the image of each piece is contained in a coordinate neighborhood of $(M,N)$), then a further perturbation clears all such $t\in I$.
Aug 4, 2011 at 12:35 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
Aug 2, 2011 at 16:53 history answered Moosbrugger CC BY-SA 3.0