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Sep 20, 2011 at 21:23 answer added Mahdi Majidi-Zolbanin timeline score: 1
Aug 22, 2011 at 13:07 comment added David White @Mahdi, why don't you make your last comment an answer?
Aug 4, 2011 at 15:31 comment added Mahdi Majidi-Zolbanin I just found out that in SGA 1 (arxiv.org/abs/math/0206203) Grothendieck calls such maps quasi-finite (see pages 1 and 2 of SGA 1).
Aug 1, 2011 at 19:10 comment added Mahdi Majidi-Zolbanin @David: For example, if $R$ is a Noetherian local ring of characteristic $p>0$ and its residue field $k$ satisfies $[k:k^p]<\infty$, then the Frobenius endomorphism $\varphi:R\rightarrow R$ may not be a finite map, but $\hat{\varphi}:\hat{R}\rightarrow\hat{R}$ will be a finite map.
Aug 1, 2011 at 19:03 comment added Mahdi Majidi-Zolbanin I'll be happy to use analytically finite, if there is no name for this.
Aug 1, 2011 at 0:50 comment added Hailong Dao May be analytically finite? Google does not show any thing like that though.
Jul 31, 2011 at 20:48 history edited Mahdi Majidi-Zolbanin CC BY-SA 3.0
added 48 characters in body
Jul 30, 2011 at 14:35 comment added the L Actually, there is a notion of a formally finite map: A map between two adic rings $(A,\mathfrak{a}) \to (B,\mathfrak{b})$ is called formally finite if $B/\mathfrak{b}$ is a finite $A$-module.
Jul 30, 2011 at 14:19 comment added David White I figured I'd tag as algebraic geometry since there is probably a nice geometric way to understand such maps and they may have a term for them. I've never come across anything with this description personally, but I'm not an algebraic geometer
Jul 30, 2011 at 14:18 history edited David White
edited tags
Jul 30, 2011 at 6:05 history asked Mahdi Majidi-Zolbanin CC BY-SA 3.0