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Jun 20, 2022 at 23:37 comment added Thomas Benjamin @FrancoisDorais: would "$\Sigma_{1}$-Separation implies the Union Principle" hold if the Union Principle was restricted to finite unions of finite sets?
Jun 4, 2022 at 4:02 comment added Thomas Benjamin Thanks. Just checking....
Jun 4, 2022 at 2:33 comment added François G. Dorais Of course not! See Carl's answer above which shows that the Union Principle implies arithmetic comprehension.
Jun 4, 2022 at 1:44 comment added Thomas Benjamin @FrancoisDorais: Were you ever able to prove "$\Sigma^{0}_{1}$-Separation implies the Union Principle"?
Jul 27, 2011 at 18:57 history answered François G. Dorais CC BY-SA 3.0