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Jul 25, 2011 at 9:19 vote accept mr.bigproblem
Jul 25, 2011 at 9:19
Jul 25, 2011 at 8:50 vote accept mr.bigproblem
Jul 25, 2011 at 9:18
Jul 25, 2011 at 8:41 comment added Francesco Polizzi You are right. But really only the definition of dimension sufficies to prove this statement. For a short proof, see [Shafarevich, Algebraic Geometry 1, Chapter I, Section 6, Theorem 1]. By the way, also Jack Huizenga's nice proof uses some kind of "dimension argument": in fact $M/M^2$ can be seen as the cotangent space of $\mathbb{A}^n$ at $(0, \ldots, 0)$.
Jul 25, 2011 at 8:27 comment added mr.bigproblem How do you prove the fact that the only closed subset of $\mathbb{A}^n_k$ isomorphic to $\mathbb{A}^n_k$ is itself? To prove the similar algebraic fact for polynomial rings, I had to use dimension. – mr.bigproblem 0 secs ago
Jul 25, 2011 at 8:01 history answered Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 3.0