Timeline for A proof for a statement about polynomial automorphism

12 events

when toggle format	what		by	license	comment
Jul 25, 2011 at 9:19	vote	accept	mr.bigproblem
Jul 26, 2011 at 0:55
Jul 25, 2011 at 9:18	vote	accept	mr.bigproblem
Jul 25, 2011 at 9:19
Jul 25, 2011 at 7:41	comment	added	mr.bigproblem		Yes, now it's a correct proof. Thanks!
Jul 25, 2011 at 7:39	vote	accept	mr.bigproblem
Jul 25, 2011 at 8:50
Jul 25, 2011 at 7:26	comment	added	Jack Huizenga		You are right, there were some issues with the original. I think it's been fixed now.
Jul 25, 2011 at 7:24	history	edited	Jack Huizenga	CC BY-SA 3.0	deleted 270 characters in body
Jul 25, 2011 at 7:11	history	edited	Jack Huizenga	CC BY-SA 3.0	edited body
Jul 25, 2011 at 7:09	comment	added	mr.bigproblem		Dear Jack, how do you imply that $\Phi_: M/M^2 \rightarrow N/N^2$ is isomorphic? I guess, to verify this, one needs the condition that $Ker \Phi\|_M = 0$, which is equivalent to $Ker \Phi = 0$. Moreover, why does it contradict when one has $\Phi_(f) = 0$? Do you mean that this implies $f \in M^2$ and then using induction implies $f \in M^n$ and finally by Krull's intersection theorem, $f = 0$, a contradiction?
Jul 25, 2011 at 7:03	vote	accept	mr.bigproblem
Jul 25, 2011 at 7:03
Jul 25, 2011 at 6:11	history	edited	Jack Huizenga	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 246 characters in body
Jul 25, 2011 at 6:05	history	edited	Jack Huizenga	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 273 characters in body; edited body
Jul 25, 2011 at 6:00	history	answered	Jack Huizenga	CC BY-SA 3.0