Denote by $\Psi : k^n\to k^n$ the map of affine spaces corresponding to $\Phi$, and without loss of generality assume $\Psi(0) = 0$. Putting $M = (x_1,\ldots,x_n)$ and $N = (y_1,\ldots,y_n)$, this means that $\Phi^{-1}(N) = M$, so $\Phi(M) = N$ since $\Phi$ is surjective. We then get an induced map $\Phi_\ast:M/M^2 \to N/N^2$$\Phi_a:M^a/M^{a+1} \to N^{a}/N^{a+1}$ for any $a\geq 1$. Here both $M/M^2$$M^a/M^{a+1}$ and $N/N^2$$N^{a}/N^{a+1}$ are $n$-dimensional $k$-vector spaces of the same dimension, and $\Phi_\ast$$\Phi_a$ is clearlythus an isomorphism since it is clearly surjective. But now if $\Phi(f) = 0$ for some $f$, then $\Phi(f) \in N$ and hence $f\in M$. We then have $\Phi_\ast(f) = 0$, a contradiction. Thus $\Phi$ is injective.
Geometrically, saying $\Phi$ is surjective means Choose $\Psi$ is an immersion, and$a$ so its differential is an isomorphism. But ifthat $\Phi$ fails to be injective, then$f$ lies in $\Psi$ maps$M^a$ but not in $k^n$ onto a lower dimensional subvariety of $k^n$, and so its differential isn't$M^{a+1}$ (such an isomorphism.
I feel obliged to add that we are somehow still using "dimension theory" here, in the sense that$a$ clearly exists: it is the dimensiondegree of affine space is encoded in the dimensionlowest degree homogeneous piece of its tangent space$f$). However We then have $\Phi_a(f) = 0$ and $f\notin M^{a+1}$, knowledge of chains of primes etc.contradicting that $\Phi_a$ is clearly overkillan isomorphism.