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Jul 19, 2011 at 23:54 comment added Keerthi Madapusi Your basic confusion seems to be between Zariski closure over $\mathbb{C}$ and Zariski closure over a sub-field. A point in $Y_{\mathbb{C}}(\mathbb{C})$, if not defined over $\mathbb{Q}$, will have a strictly bigger $\mathbb{Q}$-rational Zariski closure when viewed as a point of $X$.
Jul 19, 2011 at 21:19 comment added Qfwfq Related: mathoverflow.net/questions/18747/… Andrea Ferretti and others gave very interesting answers.
Jul 19, 2011 at 20:09 vote accept Makhalan Duff
Jul 19, 2011 at 20:09 vote accept Makhalan Duff
Jul 19, 2011 at 20:09
Jul 19, 2011 at 20:08 vote accept Makhalan Duff
Jul 19, 2011 at 20:09
Jul 19, 2011 at 19:45 answer added S. Carnahan timeline score: 4
Jul 19, 2011 at 19:36 history asked Makhalan Duff CC BY-SA 3.0