Can you help me and give me the proof of this statement please? And can you exlpainexplain me why this statement is not true when H$H$ is not a subgroup of Z(G)$Z(G)$? Thank you very much
Post Closed as "too localized" by Martin Brandenburg, Andreas Blass, Igor Rivin, Autumn Kent, S. Carnahan♦
Francesco Polizzi
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