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Timeline for Real roots for polynomials

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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
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Jul 18, 2011 at 16:03 comment added mathphysicist @Yemon: provided one considers $P$ as map from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{C}$ (rather than from $\mathbb{C}$ to $\mathbb{C}$), of course. But in the case under study we are interested in real roots only anyway.
Jul 18, 2011 at 15:19 comment added mathphysicist @Yemon: That's one way to look at it, yes.
Jul 18, 2011 at 15:03 comment added Yemon Choi Put it this way: P "is" an ordered tuple of complex numbers. Out of those, one wishes to define a new ordered tuple Q of real numbers, such that when you interpret P as a polynomial (over the complex field) then its zeros are precisely those of Q as a polynomial (with real coefficients but allowing complex roots). Is that something like what you meant?
Jul 18, 2011 at 15:01 comment added Yemon Choi MP: OK, but then I prefer Denis' formulation. (The polynomials have complex coefficients and complex roots, I wasn't keen on your elision between the variable and the roots. So your answer is what Denis suggested, is that correct?)
Jul 18, 2011 at 15:00 comment added mathphysicist @Yemon: of course I meant for real $x$.
Jul 18, 2011 at 14:38 comment added mathphysicist @Yemon: In fact $Q(x)=P(x)\bar P(x)$ even for complex $x$ (sorry for a poor formulation in previous comment), but, and that's the main point, for real $X$ $P(x)\bar P(x)$ is clearly a polynomial in $x$.
Jul 18, 2011 at 13:39 comment added mathphysicist @Yemon: $x$ is assumed to be real, and then my $Q(x)$ equals $P(x)\overline{P(x)}$ (cf. Denis' answer).
Jul 18, 2011 at 12:59 comment added Yemon Choi Specifically, take $P(z)=z-1$
Jul 18, 2011 at 12:58 comment added Yemon Choi Why is $Q(z)$ a polynomial in $z$?
Jul 18, 2011 at 11:51 history answered mathphysicist CC BY-SA 3.0