Timeline for Why does the divisor $Z$ homologous to $0$ in projective mainfold satisfy that every irreducible hypersurface appears in $Z$ with multiplicity $1$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 18, 2020 at 3:01 | history | edited | Praphulla Koushik | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
edited body; edited title
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| Jul 15, 2011 at 15:54 | vote | accept | Jun Lu | ||
| Jul 14, 2011 at 8:17 | answer | added | Francesco Polizzi | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jul 14, 2011 at 8:14 | answer | added | Jesko Hüttenhain | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 14, 2011 at 8:09 | comment | added | Francesco Polizzi | I think that he wants to say that every divisor Z homologous to 0 is linearly equivalent to a divisor in which every irred. hyp. appears with multiplicity 1. | |
| Jul 14, 2011 at 7:19 | comment | added | Angelo | What is written in the title is clearly false (just take any divisor homologous to $0$, and multiply it by $2$). I am not sure how to interpret what you say in the text of the question (every divisor is a sum of divisors with multiplicity $1$). | |
| Jul 14, 2011 at 4:46 | history | asked | Jun Lu | CC BY-SA 3.0 |