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Jul 12, 2011 at 21:55 comment added Joel David Hamkins Clinton, why not ask the question explicitly as an MO question: Is it consistent with ZF that every $\sigma$-algebra is a topology? François's answer with Gitik's model nearly answers it, and may very well provide a full answer, if we dig a bit deeper into it.
Jul 12, 2011 at 20:48 comment added François G. Dorais @Joel: Yes, my old answer only covers the case when the $\sigma$-algebra contains all the singletons. I don't see what could go wrong in the general case, but my vision is often blurry without my AC goggles...
Jul 12, 2011 at 20:45 comment added François G. Dorais @Clinton: I just added an update to my old answer. The wellordered case is much easier to prove, but the fact holds for all sets.
Jul 12, 2011 at 20:28 comment added Joel David Hamkins Clinton, I was working (habitually) in ZFC, and thinking about the usual $\sigma$-algebra of Borel sets, which are a counterexample once you know there is a non-Borel set. But you are right that this cannot be proved in ZF, and so your comment makes an interesting question! Namely, is it consistent with ZF that every $\sigma$-algebra is a topology? I'm not sure if François's answer in his linked question provides the answer, but it is surely very relevant.
Jul 12, 2011 at 20:24 comment added Clinton Conley @François: Oh, and I forgot to say thanks for the link!
Jul 12, 2011 at 20:23 comment added Clinton Conley @François: Of course I'm sure $\mathtt{ZFC}$ is the assumed framework of the question (or at least some countable choice principle, since $\sigma$-algebras get hideous without them), but the comments below the answer got me thinking in this direction. Anyway, the answer to that question seems only to cover wellorderable sets, right?
Jul 12, 2011 at 20:09 comment added François G. Dorais @Clinton: I'm pretty sure Joel (like most of us) was working in ZFC. However, you are correct: see this older MO question - mathoverflow.net/questions/33028/…
Jul 12, 2011 at 19:31 comment added Clinton Conley @Joel: I'm probably being silly, but is it clear that in $\mathtt{ZF}$ this gives the requested example? More precisely, can you pin down a set $A$ such that the $\sigma$-algebra $\sigma(\{\{a\} : a \in A\})$ generated by singletons of elements of $A$ forms a proper subset of $\mathcal{P}(A)$? Things seem to get tricky in models where all uncountable cardinals are singular.
Jul 12, 2011 at 18:18 history closed Joel David Hamkins
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Jul 12, 2011 at 17:25 answer added Marc Palm timeline score: 3
Jul 12, 2011 at 16:13 comment added Joel David Hamkins This question might be better suited to math.stackexchange. Note: if your $\sigma$-algebra includes singletons, as many do, then if it were a topology, it would have to include all subsets of the space.
Jul 12, 2011 at 16:08 history asked Claudia Brave CC BY-SA 3.0